A 27-year-old male presents to clinic with complaints of left knee pain. The patient is an avid runner and has been training for an upcoming marathon. He localizes his pain to the posterolateral aspect of his left knee. Physical exam without erythema, edema, or tenderness to palpation around the knee. Osteopathic structural examination reveals a posterior fibular head dysfunction. Which of the following sets of findings would be most consistent with the observed somatic dysfunction?